All posts by StevenHawk

A REFUTATION OF Don NOBINGER’S ‘SATAN’S LITTLE SEASON’

By Steven Haukdahl and Paul Sauls March 2024

In his article ‘SATAN’S LITTLE SEASON’  Written July 2023 by Don Nobinger ….

His claim is “SATAN’S LITTLE SEASON WAS PROBABLY LESS THAN 3 1/2 YEARS AND OCCURRED FROM AD 64 TO AD 67” and he bases it on the “little season” timing of Rev 6:11 and thinks he has made his case and runs with it for over 20 pages.

It appears that Nobinger has a FP (Full Preterist) position. We call our perspective Proper Preterism or PMP (Pre-Millennial Preterism) that insists Jesus returned ca. 70ad before “Pre” or about the same time the millennium began. We also think ca. 70AD was the time of the Binding of Satan.

His article reads ….

1) Revelation 6:11  And WHITE ROBES WERE GIVEN UNTO EVERY ONE OF THEM; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a LITTLE SEASON, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled.

It is our intention here to show that Satan -also called “the accuser of our brethren” (important to remember for later)- is not even bound until ca. 70AD dispelling another faulty paradigm used in FPism “the strong man theory” and that the “little season” of Rev 20:3 is being compared or contrasted to the long period called “the thousand years” binding.

NOBINGER’S BINDING PERIOD

Nobinger erroneously claims:

SATAN WAS BOUND AFTER THE CROSS

IV Gospel 12:31  Now is the judgment of this world; NOW THE RULER OF THIS WORLD WILL BE CAST OUT. 
IV Gospel 12:32  And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all peoples to Myself.

Did you catch that? Nobinger is equating the “CAST OUT” in the above verse in John 12:31 to the Binding of Satan.

Then he bases his conclusion of this on Jesus’ words that have no correlation to the binding of Satan (the next verse he cites v.32 above) “if he [Jesus] is lifted up from the earth, will draw all peoples to Myself.” And again somehow associates that with the Binding of Satan.

Is that what scripture teaches or did Nobinger jump the rails, get on the wrong track, run with this erroneous presupposition for over 20 pages and never look back?

We think it is the latter.

THE PURPOSE OF THE BINDING

The purpose of the Binding of Satan scripture states in Rev 20:3  is …. 👉”that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.”👈

We also think the purpose of the binding may be to release this entity (Rev 20:3 “….and after that he must be loosed a little season.”) on an unsuspecting people long into the future when Christianity has had time to flourish in different places all over the earth and gets comfortable in their own land, it says with David [the greater son of David, that is] as their king Ezk 37:22-25.

This portion of Ezekiel (passage above) is written to the NC church at a time when God’s people would have Jesus Christ [the promised greater son of David as their king, in their own land it says] in the last days of the latter years. The account states “Eze 38:8  After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years….” The “after many days” we think is a correlation to Rev 20:7  “And when the thousand years are expired,” …. It says then “Satan shall be loosed out of his prison, …Rev 20:8  And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog,”

At that point in history, it says “the camp of the saints” (a subset of “the beloved city” which is worldwide Christianity, see Rev 20:8-9 below) have settled and have become unaware of this type of adversary. In other words, a stark reminder and awakening and this leads to the final battle, as the Gog and Magog account indicates.

Scriptures states after the thousand year binding, Satan is released again ….

Rev 20:8  and shall come forth to deceive the nations which are in the four corners of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to the war: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.

Rev 20:9  And they went up over the breadth of the earth, and 👉compassed the camp of the saints about,👈 and the beloved city: and fire came down out of heaven, and devoured them.

Nobinger continues and contradicts himself by claiming “SATAN WAS BOUND AFTER THE CROSS” he states, then goes to say Satan’s release for a little season was the “3 1/2 YEARS AND OCCURRED FROM AD 64 TO AD 67” making Satan’s binding period approximately 30 years from the cross (ca. 33ad) to 64ad when Satan was allegedly released.

We ask how could Satan be bound from 33-64AD as Nobinger espouses, but contradicts himself later by saying Satan is deceiving the nations in 62-63ad as Nobinger admits, which is the very reason he is bound?

Nobinger writes:

The following verses in Ephesians also prove that Satan was not bound…

Ephesians 6:11  Put on the whole armor of God, that you may be able to stand AGAINST THE WILES OF THE DEVIL. 
Ephesians 6:12  For we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, AGAINST THE RULERS OF THE DARKNESS OF THIS AGE, AGAINST SPIRITUAL HOSTS OF WICKEDNESS IN THE HEAVENLY PLACES. 
Ephesians 6:13  Therefore take up the whole armor of God, that you may be able to withstand in the evil day, and having done all, to stand.

WHEN WAS EPHESIANS WRITTEN?

ANSWER: Approximately A. D. 62-63

The following verse in 1 Peter also proves that Satan was not bound…

1 Peter 5:8  Be sober, be vigilant; because YOUR ADVERSARY THE DEVIL WALKS ABOUT LIKE A ROARING LION, SEEKING WHOM HE MAY DEVOUR.

WHEN WAS 1 PETER WRITTEN?

ANSWER: Approximately A. D. 63[1]

He contradicts himself by rightly saying that the period of 62-63ad cannot be part of the binding period, but in other parts of his article states the little season begins in 64ad, which is when Nobinger’s binding period would have to end.

We don’t know why Nobinger fabricates the actual date Ephesians is said to be written, which is 60-62ad. Could it be because he needs the end of the binding period to be as close to his release of Satan date (64ad) as possible? Either way it is a contradiction and he makes our case.

We would agree with him those scriptures prove it cannot be the binding period of Satan and add these verses as well ….

(written ca. 52AD)
In 1Th 2:18 Image “because we would fain have come unto you, I Paul once and again; and Satan hindered us.”

(written ca. 63-65AD)
and 1Ti 5:15 Image “for already some are turned aside after Satan.”

During the gospel periods it states people are seed along the path where the word is sown. Yet SATAN COMES AND TAKES AWAY THE WORD THAT WAS SOWN IN THEM. (Mk. 4:15 Image )

All the above rightly states this satanic deception was going to the nations during the period of 33-70ad.

The time of God’s judgment (see bold) pronounced on this adversary (satan) IS the time of its then future binding. Jesus states ….

“O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, [thou] that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under [her] wings, and ye would not! 38 Behold, your house (Judah) is left unto you desolate.” (Mat 23:37 Image )

….. and that judgment resulted in their eviction from the land ca. 70AD, and Jerusalem is where the symbolic Abyss (representing God’s judgment, Psa 36:6) took place when this Adversary (satan) was imprisoned and could no longer deceive the nations for a thousand years.
After the thousand years [binding] is expired, this adversary would be released (established) back into the land for a little season!

So, WHEN was Satan bound and when did this particular deception to the nations END?

Well first, the particular deception involves the land claim of Jerusalem which signifies the symbolic Abyss he/it was bound in/from.

Quite simply without the land this adversary was essentially a vagabond scattered throughout the nations. On the other hand, with the land this adversary can lay claim to ownership of the land being from God and to being God’s chosen and fool/deceive the nations with its National Judaism, otherwise known as Zionism.

God’s judgment on Jerusalem is the Abyss of Revelation

Lloyd Dale writes: In Rev 9:1 Image with the presentation of “the key” (authority to make war against the Jews) to the star (messenger) John marks the occasion by switching his terminology from “land” to “abyss” right in this verse:  “And the fifth messenger did sound, and I saw a star out of the heaven having fallen to the earth (land), and there was given to it the key of the pit of 👉the abyss,”👈 but he also adds a new element “the pit of the.” This “star falling from heaven to the land” of Judaea and the presentation of “the key” to this “star” are of very special importance for the people of the land as well as for John’s primary audience of readers in the seven churches of Asia. [2]

The Abyss (the prison the adversary is locked in) = God’s judgment (Psa 36:6) upon Jerusalem. 

Thus, the Abyss also = the ancient land of Judea where this judgment took place (as we seen in Rev 9:1).

This adversary personified as Satan was not prohibited (bound) from deceiving the nations until they lost their city, temple and nation (Judea).

As we demonstrated above it could not be before that happened or before the dates we stated above when this adversary was active deceiving the nations from ca. 33 – 64ad as Nobinger asserts!

This is true and is why we read in Romans 16:20, in the KJV, MKJV, YLT, ASV, RV, LITV, Paul writes to the Christians at Rome that “the God of peace shall BRUISE Satan under (their) feet shortly.”

If the correct word is not BRUISE, why did all the above translators use it? The truth is Nobinger and the FP community have used the translation “crush” to erroneously apply it to the destruction of this adversary, but even the word “crush” is not sufficient, nor equal to a total elimination in “the lake of fire” as Revelation 20:10 demands!

So, we see Paul uses the audience relevance speaking to the Romans (your feet).

The Million Dollar Question:

What other New Testament adversary (satan) was “bruised” and “bound” by the Romans shortly after Paul wrote those words other than Apostate Judah with their kingdom, temple and city destroyed and taken from them as Mat 21:43 states?

Remember, this adversary personified as Satan is Jewish, which leaves us with only one conclusion:

In Rev 18:23 the Harlot, Jerusalem, is identified as the one that “by thy sorceries were all nations deceived.” In Rev 12:10 c, “the accuser (national Judaism, Jews are identified as accusers over 30 times in the NT) of our brothers (Christians) is cast down…”

Rev 3:9 Behold, I give of the synagogue of Satan, of them that say they are Jews, and they are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee.

Only one group of people go to a synagogue.

Lastly for time’s sake, we will comment on Nobinger’s sloppy and unbiblical conclusion of when the millennial reign of Christ and his saints was, when he equates the time of the binding of Satan with the millennium by saying:

“From Revelation 20:3 above we know that Satan was released AFTER the 1,000 Years aka the MILLENNIUM.” And “SATAN WAS RELEASED AFTER THE MILLENNIUM TO GATHER THE NATIONS FOR WAR”

While we would agree that Satan was bound during the time of the millennium, the thousand years of the millennium and the thousand years of the binding period of Satan are two different things! In other words, it is critical to specify whether you are talking about the thousand year millennium or the thousand year binding.

Yes, the thousand year binding period represents a long indefinite period that does have an end that began around the same time as the millennium, but we think the thousand year binding ends before the thousand year millennium as we demonstrate in other works we will gladly provide upon request.

May the Truth Prevail,

Steven Haukdahl

  1. Nobinger’s Satan’s Little Season at https://nobinger.com/joomla/index.php/eschatology/satans-little-season?highlight=WyJqdWRnZW1lbnQiXQ%3D%3D&fbclid=IwAR1VBwWQ6BPbrWmKXdvhOtTUKwleR9us70ZbUUG-1UfEpZ9i9wIz0upwtD4

  2. Lloyd Dale’s The Abyss at https://thechristianmythbusterseries.com/the-abyss/

JOHN OWEN ON “THE NEW HEAVENS AND EARTH”

written by Mike Rogers January 10, 2022

Some readers have objected to inmillennialism’s1 interpretation of Peter’s passage about the day of the Lord (2 Pet 3:10–13). I plan to address some of their concerns in future posts. Here, I will support John Formsma’s posts regarding this passage—they begin here—by presenting John Owen’s views on it. The two Johns agree.

Owen (1616–83) “was one of the most eminent of Protestant divines. He was a trenchant controversialist, and his learning was vast, varied, and profound; his mastery of Calvinism was complete.”2 His biographer said,

Every theological scholar, every lover of experimental piety, every reader of our civil and ecclesiastical history, as well as every dissenter, has heard of the name, and known something of the character of Owen:—a man, “admired when living, and adored when lost;” whose works yet praise him in the gates, and by which he will continue to instruct and comfort the church for ages to come.3

To make reading Owen’s remarks easier, I’ve altered some punctuation marks, sentence structures, spellings, reference formats, and Bible version. I’ve also added a few clarifying words [in brackets]. All this, I trust, without changing the author’s meaning. I will also add a summary outline of Owen’s reasoning at the end of this post.

John Owen on 2 Peter 34

The apostle makes a distribution of the world into heaven and earth, and says they “were destroyed with water, and perished.”5 We know that neither the fabric nor substance of the one or other was destroyed, but only men that lived on the earth. The apostle tells us (2 Pet 3:5) of the heaven and earth that were then, and were destroyed by water, distinct from the heavens and the earth that were now, and were to be consumed by fire. Yet, as to the visible fabric of heaven and earth, they were the same both before the flood and in the apostle’s time, and continue so to this day. But it is certain that the heavens and earth, whereof he spake, were to be destroyed and consumed by fire in that generation. We must, then … consider what the apostle intends by the heavens and the earth.…

First, it is certain that what the apostle intends by the “world”—with its heaven, and earth (2 Pet 3:5–6), which was destroyed by water—the same, or somewhat of that kind, he intends by “the heavens and the earth” that were to be consumed and destroyed by fire (2 Pet 3:7). Otherwise there would be no coherence in the apostle’s discourse, nor any kind of argument, but a mere fallacy of words.

Second, it is certain, that, by the flood, the world, or the fabric of heaven and earth, was not destroyed, but only the inhabitants of the world. Therefore, the destruction intimated to succeed by fire, is not of the substance of the heavens and the earth, which shall not be consumed until the last day, but of persons or men living in the world.

Third, we must consider in what sense men living in the world are said to be the “world,” and the “heavens and earth” of it. I shall only insist on one instance to this purpose, among many that may be produced, Isaiah 51:15–16. The time when the work here mentioned—of planting the heavens, and laying the foundation of the earth—was performed by God, was when he “divided the sea” (Isa 51:15), and gave the law (Isa 51:16), and said to Zion, “You are My people.” This is when He took the children of Israel out of Egypt, and formed them in the wilderness into a church and state. Then He planted the heavens, and laid the foundation of the earth:—made the new world; that is, brought forth order, and government, and beauty, from the confusion wherein before they were. This is the planting of the heavens, and laying the foundation of the earth in the world. And hence it is, that when mention is made of the destruction of a state and government, it is in that language which seems to set forth the end of the world. So Isaiah 34:4, which is yet but the destruction of the state of Edom. The like also is affirmed of the Roman Empire (Rev 6:14); which the Jews constantly affirm to be intended by Edom in the prophets. And in our Savior Christ’s prediction of the destruction of Jerusalem (Matt 24), He sets it out by expressions of the same importance. It is evident, then, that in the prophetical idiom and manner of speech, by “heavens” and “earth,” the civil and religious state and combination of men in the world, and the men of them, are often understood. So were the heavens and earth—that world which then was—destroyed by the flood.

Fourth, on this foundation I affirm, that the heavens and earth here intended in this prophecy of Peter—the coming of the Lord, the day of judgment, and perdition of ungodly men, mentioned in the destruction of that heaven and earth—do all of them relate, not to the last and final judgment of the world, but to that utter desolation and destruction that was to be made of the Judaical church and state. For which, I shall offer these two reasons, of many that might be insisted on from the text:

(1.) Because whatever is here mentioned was to have its peculiar influence on the men of that generation. Peter speaks of that wherein both the profane scoffers and those scoffed at were concerned, and that as Jews—some of them believing, others opposing the faith. Now, there was no particular concernment of that generation—nor in that sin, nor in that scoffing—as to the day of judgment in general. But there was a peculiar relief for the one and a peculiar dread for the other at hand, in the destruction of the Jewish nation. And, besides, [this destruction was] an ample testimony, both to the one and the other, of the power and dominion of the Lord Jesus Christ;—which was the thing in question between them.

(2.) Peter tells them, that, after the destruction and judgment that he speaks of, 2 Peter 3:13, “We, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth,” etc. They had this expectation. But what is that promise? Where may we find it? Why, we have it in the very words and letter, Isaiah 65:17. Now, when shall this be that God will create these new heavens and new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness?” Saith Peter, “ It shall be after the coming of the Lord, after that judgment and destruction of ungodly men, who obey not the gospel, that I foretell.” But now it is evident from this place of Isaiah, with Isaiah 65:21–22, that this is a prophecy of Gospel times only; and that the planting of these new heavens is nothing but the creation of gospel ordinances to endure for ever. The same thing is so expressed in Hebrews 12:26–28.

This being, then, the design of the place, I shall not insist longer on the context, but briefly open the words proposed, and fix upon the truth contained in them:—

First, there is the foundation of the apostle’s inference and exhortation, … “Seeing that I have evinced that all these things, however precious they seem, or what value soever any put upon them, shall be dissolved,—that is, destroyed; and that, in that dreadful and fearful manner before mentioned,—in a way of judgment, wrath, and vengeance, by fire and sword;—let others mock at the threats of Christ’s coming,—He will come, He will not tarry; and then the heavens and earth that God Himself planted,—the sun, moon, and stars of the Judaical polity and church,—the whole old world of worship and worshippers, that stand out in their [stubbornness6] against the Lord Christ, —shall be sensibly dissolved and destroyed. This, we know, shall be the end of these things, and that shortly.”[Owen then makes other applications of this passage.]

Outline of Owen’s Logic

  1. Problem: What did Peter mean by “the heavens and earth” that fire was about to destroy? How could he compare the fire judgment to the flood?
  2. Answer:
    1. The fire would judge the same heavens and earth as the flood.
    2. The flood destroyed wicked men, not the physical heavens and earth. The fire would do so, too.
    3. The fire would consume “the heavens and earth” God created in the exodus (Isa 51:15–16)—the Jewish cosmos with the temple at its center. Jesus foretold the same judgment (Matt 24:1–3) and used similar imagery to describe it (Matt 24:29). This imagery describes civil and religious states and the men who live in them.
    4. Two observations confirm this view of the fiery judgment of which Peter speaks:
      1. It makes Peter’s message relevant to his readers. They and the scoffers had a vital and immediate concern with this “heavens and earth.” The conflict at hand was between Christians and apostate Israel. Jesus had promised to return in His generation (Matt 24:34), but that generation was almost over. Still, He would prove the scoffers wrong!
      2. God had promised a “new heavens and a new earth” in Isaiah 65:21–22. This figurative language represents the messianic age in which we now live. Paul spoke of this age in Hebrews 12:26–28. Jesus would return to end the Jewish “heavens and earth” and its temple. He would fully establish the Christian “heavens and earth” with Himself as its center.
    5. Exhortations to the people of Peter’s generation:
      1. Know that Christ said he was about to come to destroy the Jewish “heavens and earth” (Heb 10:37–391 Pet 4:17). He will do so without fail; the scoffers are wrong.
      2. Learn to live in the “new heavens and earth” with Christ at its center. Don’t stay in the old Jewish world that is about to perish.

Owen’s view of 2 Peter 3 fits well in the inmillennial prophetic model. Lord willing, my next post will show why Peter’s reference to the universal flood does not require a universal judgment by fire.

Footnotes

  1. For a full-length account of this prophetic model, see Michael A. Rogers, Inmillennialism: Redefining the Last Days(Tullahoma, TN: McGahan Publishing House, 2020). It is available here. For a summary, see the free PDF here.
  2. Samuel Macauley Jackson, ed., The New Schaff-Herzog Encyclopedia of Religious Knowledge (New York; London: Funk & Wagnalls, 1908–14), 8:293.
  3. William Orme, Memoirs of the Life, Writings, and Religious Connections, of John Owen (London: Printed for T. Hamilton, 1820), 3.
  4. See John Owen, The Works of John Owen, 16 vols. (Carlisle, PA: Banner of Truth, 1965), 9:133–35. This passage is from a sermon, “Providential Changes, an Argument for Universal Holiness.”
  5. The image in this post is Noah’s Ark by Edward Hicks (1780–1849). This file (here) is in the public domain (PD-US).
  6. Owen’s word was obstinacy.

FUTURISM (STEPHEN WHITSETT) VS PROPER PRETERISM (STEVEN HAWK)

Steven Hawk vs. Stephen Whitsett

Steven Hawk First Affirmative

Steven Hawk AFFIRMS Jesus did not begin to reign until the resurrection of the first century saints, which was after the defeat of the first century beast power at the DOJ that crushed the land beast, as Rev 20:4 tells us.

PART 1 OF 2 DEBATE (VIDEO)

PART 2 OF 2 DEBATE (VIDEO)

I would like to clarify something Stephen misunderstood about me… when I say don’t put your faith in men (Psa 118:8), but in the Word, I just mean be a Berean and I hope he begins to see the scholarship in PP, because there is a lot in it and I am not in any sense anti-scholar. I just do not look for their opinions, I need to see it in scripture. 2Co 10:12 says “For we are not bold to number or compare ourselves with certain of them that commend themselves: but they themselves, measuring themselves by themselves, and comparing themselves with themselves, are without understanding.” I think also that God is illuminating some things because we are fast approaching the GWTJ of Rev 20:12ff, but guys like SW have us back in the last days before the thousands years even began!

Whitsett must realize that the FPist claim is all prophecy fulfilled ca. 70AD with the DOJ. Proper Preterists on the other hand, such as myself, claim that we are now in the time when Satan (satan is used as a personification of evil) is released from his prison to go out and deceive the nations to war with G&M on the world scene (Rev 20:3 and 7ff), quite a difference.  Yet he claims there is not any or much difference. Thus, Whitsett does not know my position and is therefore debating something he does not comprehend, which is part of the problem. 

Definitions and Abbreviations:

The “Bible” is the 66 books of the Old and New Testament scriptures.

Resurrection of the dead = a person risen back to life in a new spiritual body 1Co 15:44 (with the same spirit and soul).

PAROUSIA = the accession of Christ to, and His presence on, His heavenly throne of glory, the promised throne of David.

Epiphaneia = a visible, manifestation, appearing of what was hidden previously.

DOJ = destruction of Jerusalem (ca. 70AD)

FPist(s) / Fpism = Full Preterists / Full Preterism

GWTJ = great white throne judgment of Rev 20:12ff

G&M = Gog and Magog

SW = Stephen Whitsett

Proposition: 

The destruction of Jerusalem was the visible and dramatic manifestation (“the sign” Mat 24:2, 3) to Christ’s disciples that he would at that time ascend to the throne of His glory in heaven as King of kings and Lord of lords, around the time of God’s judgment upon Jerusalem, as he said he would (ca. 70AD see Luk 21:28;Mat 21:43 when the kingdom was taken from the Jews); and His accession to that throne would not be visible to them (Luk 17:20), thus Christ gave them this sign

Luk 17:20  And being questioned by the Pharisees as to when the kingdom of God comes, He answered them and said, The kingdom of God does not come with observation;

Nature and Time of Parousia

The Parousia most definitely occurred and was “visible” circa AD70 to the resurrected saints. Thus, we hold that the Parousia was the accession and continuing presence of Jesus to/on His throne of Glory along with the resurrected saints. 

Mat 24:30  And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the heavens. And then all the tribes of the land will wail. And they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and much glory. (cp. Dan. 7:13)

Mat 24:31  And He will send His angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they will gather His elect from the four winds, from the ends of the heavens to their ends.

This great ca. 70AD event that occurred within a generation (Mat 24:34) marked the beginning of the Millennium with Jesus reigning with his Saints (Rev 20:4), subduing the nations of mankind (1Co 15:23-28) from the heavenly realm, reigning over the earth (Rev 5:10 see the LITV). It is a  heavenly reign (see 1Pe 1:4; Col 1:5; 2Tim 4:18).

Heb 10:36  for you have need of endurance that, doing the will of God, you should be requited with the promise.”

Heb 10:37  For still how very little, He Who is coming will be arriving and not delaying.”

Requit with the promise is more than coming (without delay) in judgment alone, as futurists assert.

Everything from this point forward is rebuttal:

SW, in this First Affirmative video, states the following scripture affirms Jesus receives his throne and kingdom at his ascension. (As you may already see, there is no scriptural evidence for this in the following verses, as I shall show):

Dan 7:14  And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all the peoples, nations, and languages should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.

Col 3:1  If then ye were raised together with Christ, seek the things that are above, where Christ is, seated on the right hand of God.

Col 3:2  Set your mind on the things that are above, not on the things that are upon the earth.

Col 3:3  For ye died, and your life is hid with Christ in God.

Col 3:4  When Christ, who is our life, shall be manifested, then shall ye also with him be manifested in glory.

IV GOSPEL 5:26-27 (NOT WRITTEN BY JOHN, there is not one verse to justify the John idea, thus we shouldn’t say it) For as the Father hath life in himself, even so gave he to the Son also to have life in himself:

27and he gave him authority to execute judgment, because he is a son of man.

  • Act 2:32  This Jesus did God raise up, whereof we all are witnesses.
  • Act 2:33  Being therefore by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he hath poured forth this, which ye see and hear.
  • Act 2:34  For David ascended not into the heavens: but he saith himself, The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,
  • Act 2:35  Till I make thine enemies the footstool of thy feet.

RESPONSE (Rebuttal) to SW’s above alleged scriptural proofs:

We who hold a Proper Preterist perspective firmly reject any eschatological view (e.g. the FPist view) which posits the Millennium of Christ as terminating in AD70. Such views overtly violate Christ’s clear statements concerning when He would officially take seat with his Saints on the Throne of His Glory (Throne of David) in Mat 19:28, Mat 25:31, & Rev 3:21.      

These (above 3) verses alone clearly establish our position, that ca. 40 years after Jesus’ ascension, at the DOJ, when the kingdom was officially taken from apostate Judah Mat 21:43, Jesus began his reign with his faithful overcomers.

But let’s get to SW’s primary proof in Col 3.

Collosians 3 makes no suggestion that the reign of Christ and his saints began, as my three witnesses (i.e. Mat 19:28, 25:31 and Rev 3:21) above show:

1. “Putting on the new self” as being described in Col 3 is the new spirit and this is further clarified by point #2…

2. The same authors in numerous scriptures keep saying that they are still looking for the resurrection in a new body when Christ returns and even Col 3:4 states “SHALL BE MADE MANIFEST,” future tense. Trying to make Col 3:1 refer to the resurrection is simply ludicrous, you can’t have it both ways, it is the resurrection/new body, but yet they are still looking for it!?!?

In baptism we are raised together with Christ, a burial in water “likened to Christ’s death”. This is even the point of Col 3:3  (when did we die? How?)….when we are 1. given a new spirit 2. where in we were raised to walk in newness of life while still in these bodies (not our new resurrected bodies) …the newness we are raised to is a newness of life with a new spirit.

Nature and Time of Resurrection

In a Proper Preterism perspective we note that scripture seems to speak of “resurrection” in terms of a singular event in time coincident with the Parousia and Epiphaneia of Christ. We think this is because the FIRST resurrection, which is of the saints only, is given emphasis and priority over “the rest of the dead” and that is what is being referred to. Thus, we acknowledge that Revelation 20 posits a First resurrection of saints only separated by the Millennial Reign of Christ with his saints, then the rest of the dead are raised after the thousands years.  

We think those who only see a single resurrection event are interpreting the more specific and detailed resurrection passages like 1Co 15; 1Th 4 and Rev 20:4-6, 12 in light of the vague verses such as Dan 12:2 and Acts 24:15, which should be the other way around.  In fact, we find evidence that the extant manuscripts actually support the inclusion of Rev 20:5a rather than exclusion. 2) Even if one were to eliminate Rev 20:5a from the texts, the very same information is given in Rev 20:6, where protos anastasis most certainly implies a secondary resurrection event. We therefore hold that the First Resurrection pertained to the faithful dead in Christ, and took place circa AD70. 

The First Resurrection began the Millennial Reign of Christ with his Saints. Rev 20:4 suggests it occurs AFTER the defeat of the first century land beast power. Thus, we believe the Millennium reign is ongoing today as Christ continues to subdue the nations with a rod of iron and through his gospel. The second resurrection and judgment of “the rest of the dead”(GWTJ Rev 20:12) will occur at some point yet future to us after Christ’s adversaries are destroyed (1Co 15:25; Rev 20:10). Adversary having currently renewed his deception to the nations during the “little while” as Rev 20:3, 7-8 anticipated. 

While we believe Christ’s kingdom will never end, we do see an end to some Messianic duties once the nations are fully subdued and we see this to be the point at which Christ delivers the kingdom to the Father according to 1Co 15:23-28, having accomplished all work the Father gave him in the reconciliation of all things.      

1Th 4:16  Because the Lord Himself shall come down from Heaven with a commanding shout of an archangel’s voice, and with God’s trumpet. And the dead in Christ will rise —> FIRST.<—

Rev 20:4  And I perceived thrones, and they are seated on them, and judgment was granted to them. And the souls of those executed because of the testimony of Jesus and because of the word of God, and those who do not worship the beast or its image, and did not get the emblem on their forehead and on their hand- 

—> they also live and reign with Christ a thousand years.” <— 

Rev 20:5  (The rest of the dead do not live until the thousand years should be finished.) This is the —> FIRST resurrection.<————————

PART 2 FOR VIDEO

Some FPists use the following verse in Mat 28:18 to claim Jesus Reigns at his Ascension:

  • Jesus “being” given power and authority:
  • Mat 28:18  And Jesus came to them and spake unto them, saying, All authority hath been given (εδοθη is a different derivative of the words used below in Luk 22:19) unto me in heaven and on earth.

Luk 22:19  And taking a loaf, giving (εδωκεν, here is an aorist tense) thanks, He broke, and gave to them, saying, This is My body being given (διδομενον, ) (however, here διδομενον is used in the present tense) for you. This do to My remembrance.

Notice how, in Luk 22:19 above, the same Greek word, but in a different tense is used differently?:

Greek NT WH+ (Westcott-Hort+) εδωκεν used in Luk 22:19 above:

V-AAI-3S   (RMAC)

Part of Speech: Verb

Tense: Aorist

Voice: Active

Mood: Indicative

Person: third [he/she/it]

Number: Singular

  • My Greek lexicon disagrees with the translations I have and I would not had noticed (probably in the same sense the translators didn’t notice) unless I had first learned about Proper Preterism, which informs me of the sequence regarding Christ’s kingdom.
  •  
  • “And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, “All authority is (third person singular present of be.) given (εδοθη (5681)) to Me in heaven and on earth.” (Mt 28:18)  Alternate “is being given” (present participle of be.)
  •  
  • 5681 TVM: Aorist 5777, Passive 5786, Indicative 5791, Count: 602
  •  
  • 5777 Tense-Aorist
  •  
  • The aorist tense is characterized by its emphasis on punctiliar action; that is, the concept of the verb is considered without regard for past, present, or future time.  There is no direct or clear English equivalent for this tense, though it is generally rendered as a simple past tense in most translations.
  •  
  • The aorist tense, in most cases, cannot be rendered accurately in an English translation,  The common practice of rendering a Greek aorist by a simple English past tense is seriously flawed in many cases.  It would be better to render these Greek aorist tense verbs into English as a simple present-continuous English tense.
  •  
  • In the case of Matt 28:19, the KJV makes an attempt to thus render the Greek aorist tense as it rendered the Greek εδοθη aorist, passive, indicative tense as “is (third person singular present of be) given”   Alternate “is being given” (present participle of be)

a·o·rist (ā′ər-ĭst) n. 1. A form of a verb in some languages, such as Classical Greek, that expresses action without indicating its completion or continuation.

Aorist definition is – an inflectional form of a verb typically denoting simple occurrence of an action without reference to its completeness, duration, or repetition.

The word comes from Ancient Greek ἀόριστος aóristos “indefinite”,[1] it described an action “pure and simple”.

“is given”(KJV) in the Greek it is an aorist tense verb. The English language does not have an aorist tense verb so there is no direct equivalent translation of this Greek verb into English. For reasons, apparently known only to them, many translators have generally chosen to translate this aorist tense verse into an English past tense; however, a better translation would be the English present, continuous tense verb “is being given” an action that was taking place in the first century.

  • Jesus “being” given power and authority:
  • Mat 28:18  And Jesus came to them and spake unto them, saying, All authority being given unto me in heaven and on earth.
  • Jesus delivers kingdom to the Father after all power and authority is put under his feet (submission):
  • Then the end will come, when he [Christ] gives over the kingdom to God the Father —> after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power” <— (1Co 15:24).  

  • The point being that Jesus does not acquire his power and authority at the end as in 1Co 15:24 says “Then, the end” and Jesus still has to subdue, smash, dash enemy authorities that will  surrender, the end in v.24 is after the thousand years because the “Then” denotes an interval of time after His parousia in v.23.

When Jesus said “all things are put under him,” referencing Jesus’ statement in Mat 28:18, it is manifest that the Father is excepted, who did put all things under the authority of Jesus.” (1Co 15:27)  

That is what happens before he goes forth and rules in the midst of his enemies. He is, to this day, the rider on the white horse dashing the nations with a rod of iron because under the new covenant it is Christ Himself who “judges and makes war” against the wicked (Psa 2:9; Rev 2: 27, 12:5, 19:11-16). The phrase “put all things under your feet” stems from a Hebrew idiom which literally in English means “He will stomp them into submission to His authority.” 1Co 15:24-27 is a commentary on Psalm 110:2ff; et al.

There is a difference between putting all things under you (placed in a position of authority/given the crown) and putting under/an end to all things (an activity that destroys one’s enemies).

The activity that the king engages in to put down all reign and subdue all things comes AFTER the status has been granted and it is usually accomplished “after a much later time” and in the case of Christ it takes place after the figurative thousands years + a little season (Rev 20:3), take note of the following::

Heb 2:8 THOU HAST PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. (Placed in position of authority/King crowned) For in that HE PUT ALL IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIM, (author acknowledges that Jesus had already at that present time been placed in that position of authority/given the crown) he left nothing that is not put under him. BUT NOW WE SEE NOT YET all things PUT UNDER HIM (“put under,” the actual activity/destruction not just the authority, having a crown that ends or puts an end to all enemies’ rule and authority/everything under/subdued in reality not just in authority.)

++++++++++

Is there more scripture that shows Jesus did not begin to reign in his kingdom at his ascension as FP’m implies and as Stephen Whitsett implies?

  • Hebrews 10:13 is the commentary on Psalm 110:1 within the NT:
  • “But this man (Jesus), after he had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down on the right hand of God; and from there He is waiting for His enemies to be made his footstool.” (Heb 10:12-13, emphasis and commentary added) 
  • Hebrews was written ca. 64 AD, several years after 1Corinthians was written. According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus was still sitting at the right hand of the Father in ca. 64 AD, because He was still waiting for His enemies to be made His footstool
  • So, Stephen assumes Jesus is reigning immediately upon his ascension because he ignores the “until” of Psa 110; it says he sits at the Father’s right hand (cf. the Father’s throne Rev 3:21), “until” he takes his own throne and begins to reign. 

Heb 9:8  the Holy Spirit this signifying, that the way into the holy place hath not yet been made manifest, while the first tabernacle is yet standing;

  • The 1st century Apostles were sealed with the spirit (30-70AD), which was the EARNEST DOWN PAYMENT Eph 1:13-14; 2Co 1:22, but did NOT have salvation at the cross and resurrection of Christ, but were waiting for his parousia (Mat 24:2-3, 30) and the sign of it.
  • Heb 9:28 and Rom 13:11 are a couple verses that show salvation does not occur at His cross and resurrection as Full Preterism assumes, because there is a process to our redemption — HIS RETURN “A SECOND TIME” HAS TO ALSO HAVE OCCURRED.  It’s the process of redemption and that process ended with the destruction of the old system ca. 70AD, then redemption/salvation began in the promised kingdom. 
  • Heb 9:28 so Christ also, having been once offered to bear the sins of many, shall appear “A SECOND TIME,” apart from sin, to them that wait for him, “UNTO SALVATION.” 
  • Romans 13:11 And that, knowing the time, that now it is high time to awake out of sleep: for NOW is our salvation “NEARER” [near is not here] than when we believed. 
  • (Carefully consider this verse with Heb 9:28 above to see they did not have it yet, until His return.)
  • I repeat, Rom 13:11 (above verse) salvation is close.
  • Then, in the following verse, we see Salvation is here ….
  • Rev 12:10 And I hear a loud voice in heaven saying, “Just now came the salvation and the power and the kingdom of our God, and the authority of His Christ, [WHEN?] for the accuser of our brethren was cast out, who was accusing them before our God day and night.” (CLV)
  • We see the accuser of our brethren having been cast out at the DOJ, because over 30 times in the NT, none other than the Jews are called the accusers of our brethren and they were indeed cast out of their city and kingdom as Jesus predicted in Mat 21:43, ca. 70AD and the verse i just read tells us that is the time of the inauguration of Christ’s kingdom!
  • So, if salvation and Christ’s kingdom came when satan or adversary was cast out, then it did not come at Christ’s ascension because Jesus was seated at the right hand of the Father as the prince in waiting (see Dan 9:25-26; Act 5:31) about 40 years before he became king!
  • Then in the Parousia, Jesus leaves His Father’s throne and ascends to his throne, i.e. the promised throne of His Father David when He invites His faithful “overcomers” to ascend to heaven (by resurrection) and “sit with Me in My throne even as I also overcame and sat with My Father in His throne.” Once He is sitting on HIS OWN throne God “sends the rod of (Jesus’) strength out or Zion” and so Jesus reigns “in the midst of His enemies.”  Paul, commenting on this passage, states that, “He must reign until…He has put down all rule and all authority and power…when all things shall be subdued unto Him…” in our future.
  • The parousia consists of his reign after the accession to His promised throne (Mat 19:28; Luk 1:32-33) – and is not only the wrath of God’s judgment as SW espouses — “the Day of the Lord” begins with the wrath of God on the 1st century Apostate Jews and shines through with the Parousia (presence) of Christ, still ongoing today. 

In Summary, Before Jesus became King, he was the prince in waiting (see Dan 9:25-26; Act 5:31). Stephen mocked at the idea of someone, such as myself, coming to realize what the majority does not know. IMV, he lacks faith that God reveals to those who diligently search and do not depend on others to come up with our conclusions. 2Co 10:12 says “For we are not bold to number or compare ourselves with certain of them that commend themselves: but they themselves, measuring themselves by themselves, and comparing themselves with themselves, are without understanding.” I think also that God is illuminating some things because we are fast approaching the GWTJ of Rev 20:12ff, but guys like SW have us back in the last days before the thousands years even began!

What is “firmly established” here is the usual futurist hot air bombast and theological muddle that is preterist denying logic. 

There is a difference between being given an inheritance versus taking possession of said inheritance. Just as the roles of hierarchy shows us there is a difference between given power in authority over all things such as when a prince is seated and when a king is first crowned, in this case we have shown was ca. 70AD, and when the king actually wages war, hunts down and captures, then destroys all his enemies. That is a process, not a single event, just as setting up the kingdom is a process, not a single event. 

Scriptures say Jesus would return when his kingdom is prepared (IV gospel -not written by John- 14:3, After he first ascended and obtained it. In foreknowledge of himself leaving he said, speaking to his disciples “and if I go on and prepare for you a place, again do I come, and will receive you unto myself, that where I am you also may be;” Jesus is not saying he will prepare it here, but that he will prepare it in heaven where he ascends to, then comes back to take his sheep to be at that place in heaven with him. 

We who know Proper Preterism think since the DOJ (as Christ said would be the sign of his parousia) followers of Christ have been risen to that heavenly kingdom and have been populating it since. Even in Jesus’ own parables he alluded to this process. Jesus left to prepare it and would return to receive his own, in the soon to be harvest, in the last days (Heb 1:2 says that THEY were in). Stephen should realize, according to audience relevance, it was they (not us) living in those last days.

I recently watched a news video that had a picture of a lion in the background with the words HAVE NO FEAR, CHRIST IS NEAR. To someone, like myself, with a proper preterist perspective that is denying Christ’s own words, because Christ is present and has been present when you understand he is to reign in the midst of as he conquers his enemies. It is only when he is finished subduing those enemies God will be all in all. So Christ is and has been here (not near) for almost 2000 years.


 ἀόριστοςLiddell, Henry GeorgeScott, RobertA Greek–English Lexicon at the Perseus Project

The (ca. 70ad) Binding, The Release (a figurative thousand years after ca. 70ad) & Coming Destruction of Satan

by Steven Hawk © 2019 This content may be cited with written credits. All Rights Reserved.

The following document contains:

1. Who is Satan

2. Identity of this Accuser of Our Brethren

3. The Abyss Identified & Explained

4. Why the Thousand Years is Longer than a Thousand — it Began ca. 70AD and How We KNOW When it Ends

5. The Release of Satan, the Christian Adversary, the Accuser

6. The Destruction of the Christian Adversary

In the Book of Revelation 20:2-3, 7-8 and 10, this Christian Adversary called Satan that is personified as an individual serpent/dragon or monster, is described in chapter 20, in the above verses, as being first bound, then released (after the thousand years) and finally destroyed in v.10. If we are first open to the idea these things are highly symbolized to mean something else —but are still very real, no one is saying they are not real— and that they were given to be understood, then they will be understandable.

First, the length of the binding of this Adversary (Grk. Satanas), which the Bible uses as a personification of evil, is not recorded as being ONE thousand, it just says thousand (Grk. xilia), and since all of Revelation has figures of speech, metaphors, analogies (e.g. there’s a great dragon, a chain, an abyss etc.), nothing is literal in that passage, so the thousand years is not either. To try and make a case that the thousand years is, is to make no sense out of anything else either. 

In this document we will also show you (besides the reason just given it is figurative) the thousand years in chapter 20 denotes a long indefinite period and why it cannot mean a short period.

Who is Satan?

Contrary to popular belief and Christian tradition (which we assert to be Christian Myth and Jewish Fables that turn us from the truth) the Bible teaches there are several different Satans in scripture. The English word “satan” is actually a transliteration of an ancient Aramaic word that was transliterated into Hebrew, then into Greek (Satanas) and finally into English and is consistently used a personification of evil, whether the context is an entity or an individual.

While the word Satan means a specific adversary (we will soon get to that), it is nonetheless a word which actually means “adversary” as translated in the YLT (we are not partial to the YLT either), and is better understood that way in the English language scriptures –just as the English word “Devil” is best understood if translated “Slanderer,” then add “of Christianity” after it for better clarity. Thus, the Greek word transliterated as Satan actually means “the adversary” and from this point on we will try to simply use the word adversary. For more on this read Book 2 of the Christian MythBuster Series called “The Master of Deception.”

The past hundred years or so of study has brought an illumination to the problems with the traditional Satan, but most cannot or will not accept the basic truth that many of these passages are actually describing first century events pertaining to the Jewish leadership persecuting the Christians in the last days. Proper Preterism knows the binding of Satan WAS A LAST DAY’S EVENT (i.e. a thing that was “shortly” to take place). However, we will demonstrate in this short document, the release and destruction of Satan most certainly ARE NOT last day’s events! Thus, it is wrong to deny fulfillment and it is just as wrong (Full Preterists) to deny what is NOT YET fulfilled.

The Satan we are focused on here is the Christian Adversary of the NT that the Revelation calls “the accuser of our brethren” among other things.

With that, we cannot accept the Full Preterist application of “the strong” (the word “man” is not even there) as indicating the binding of Satan in:

Mat 12:29 Or how can one enter into the house of the strong man, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

The fact that Baelzebub and Demons are mentioned in the above chapter (Mat 12) does not give credence to their argument either. Unbeknownst to most Christians, According to scripture, Baelzebub and Demons are not related to the Christian adversary (personified as satan) bound in Rev 20. To say it is, is the Christian Myth and Jewish fables we mentioned in the beginning of this article because Baelzebub (derived from Bael worship) was an idol in the OT and the apostate Jews brought this teaching with them. It has no relation to the Satan described as “the accuser of our brethren.”

Demons are idol worship in the OT (ABP+, the CLV says the same thing):

Isa 65:3 This people, the one provoking me, [before me is always].  They sacrifice in the gardens, and they burn incense upon the bricks to the demons which are not. (ABP+, see also the CLV)

Sometimes demons are even idols in the NT:

Rev 9:20 And the rest of mankind, who were not killed with these plagues, repented not of the works of their hands, that they should not worship demons, and the idols of gold, and of silver, and of brass, and of stone, and of wood; which can neither see, nor hear, nor walk:

Demons represent other things too in the NT that the Jews did not understand were the curses, as in Duet 28, (evil spirits such as madness) from YHWH for their continual harlotry (see our 2nd book “The Master of Deception”, but in scripture Jesus did not usually correct them, he instead showed the error in their own “traditions of the elders” did not add up.

Conclusion

Neither Baelzebub, Demons, nor the Strong one of Mat 12:29 are related to the Satan that is bound in Revelation 20, they are only so in myths and traditions of men. There is no Lord of the Underworld with Demons below him —that is called adding to the word of God that brings judgment upon whomever does it.

Does Full Preterism have another binding?

Identity of this Accuser of Our Brethren

Rev 12:10 informs us concerning what is bound and is of what Revelation calls “the synagogue of Satan.” There are only one group of people who attend a synagogue and after Christ was revealed a second time, as Heb 9:28 states, only Apostate Jews would attend a synagogue because Jesus made it clear those who accepted him, were of his body that most Christians call the church, not synagogue.

Rev 12:10 And I hear a loud voice in heaven saying, “Just now came the salvation and the power and the kingdom of our God, and the authority of His Christ, for the accuser of our brethren was cast out, who was accusing them before our God day and night.”

In Rev 18:23 the Harlot, Jerusalem, is identified as the one that “by thy sorceries were all nations deceived.” In Rev 12:10 c, “the accuser (national Judaism, Jews are identified as accusers over 30 times in the NT) of our brothers (Christians) is cast down…”

ACCUSE (some of these may be repeats because of different translations in the search) ….

Mat_12:10 (ASV) and behold, a man having a withered hand. And they asked him, saying, Is it lawful to heal on the sabbath day? that they might accuse him. Jewish leadership

Mar_3:2 (ASV) And they watched him, whether he would heal him on the sabbath day; that they might accuse him. Jewish leadership

Mar_15:4 (ASV) And Pilate again asked him, saying, Answerest thou nothing? behold how many things they accuse thee of. Jewish leadership

Luk_6:7 (ASV) And the scribes and the Pharisees watched him, whether he would heal on the sabbath; that they might find how to accuse him. Jewish leadership

Luk_23:2 (ASV) And they began to accuse him, saying, We found this man perverting our nation, and forbidding to give tribute to Caesar, and saying that he himself is Christ a king. Jewish leadership

Luk_23:14 (ASV) and said unto them, Ye brought unto me this man, as one that perverteth the people: and behold, I having examined him before you, found no fault in this man touching those things whereof ye accuse him: Jewish leadership 

Joh_5:45 (ASV) Think not that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, on whom ye have set your hope. Moses accusing the Jewish leadership

Joh_8:6 (ASV) And this they said, trying him, that they might have whereof to accuse him. But Jesus stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground. Jewish leadership

Act_19:38 (ASV) If therefore Demetrius, and the craftsmen that are with him, have a matter against any man, the courts are open, and there are proconsuls: let them accuse one another. 

Act_24:2 (ASV) And when he was called, Tertullus began to accuse him, saying, Seeing that by thee we enjoy much peace, and that by the providence evils are corrected for this nation, Jewish leadership’s orator

You may finish the list here.

Conclusion

The “accuser of the brethren” is another way God describes this same adversary, perhaps in hidden code so the persecuted Christians in the first century (and Christians today) would know who it was talking about by deciphering (i.e. letting scripture define its own words) this phrase.

The Abyss Identified & Explained

The Abyss (the prison the adversary is locked in) = God’s judgment (Psa 36:6) upon Jerusalem. 

Thus, the Abyss also = the ancient land of Judea where this judgment took place (as we see in Rev 9:1 and will demonstrate in the next few paragraphs because of the terminology John uses to show where this messenger is dispatched to perform the war authority)

There is a great chain (symbolic for the war power) given to this messenger (angel) of war to bind this adversary.

Lloyd Dale writes: “The angel (messenger) that comes down from heaven, having the key of the Bottomless pit” is Caesar Titus (the title by which Josephus identified the Roman general Titus).  In chapter 9 Vespasian was given the key to the bottomless pit by Yahweh through Nero. Also in Rev 9:11 Vespasian is identified as “the messenger of the bottomless pit.” Thus this key was simply transferred to Titus when the new Caesar, Vespasian established Titus as the general of the Roman legions in Judaea, and ordered his son Titus to prosecute the war with the Jews to the bitter end.”

In Psa 36:6 it says God’s judgment is a great deep (Heb. tehome Grk. abbusos) or Abyss. Paul uses the Abyss as “a metaphor for the grave” in Rom 10:7 reinforcing our understanding of God’s judgment = the Abyss.  We know this for certain because Paul knew that the body of Jesus was not to see decay (corruption, Psa 16:10 cf. Act 2:22-32).  Death and the grave are the products of God’s judgment upon man as a result of Adam’s sin in the garden.

In the following passages and many others Jesus clearly states that the wrath of Yahweh would be poured out upon the apostate house of Judah in the first century generation. This was God’s judgment (the Abyss) barring the Jews from Judea (the Abyss) for a [figurative] thousand years so they could not deceive the nations (Rev 20:3) during this long period.

Luke 19:41-44 (comments and emphasis added) And when He was come near, he beheld the city (Jerusalem), and wept over it, Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things [which belong] unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes. For the days (of  justice) shall come upon thee, that thine enemies (the Roman soldiers) shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side, And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation (the day of wrath).

That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel  unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar. 36 Verily I say unto you, All these things shall come upon this generation. 37 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, [thou] that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under [her] wings, and ye would not! 38 Behold, your house (of Judah) is left unto you desolate. Mat 23:35-37

The just wrath of Yahweh through Yahshua was surely vindicated when the Roman army “stoned” and “burned” the capital city Jerusalem in the 3 1/2 year period between 66 and 70AD during the Jewish-Roman war in the land of Judaea.

Lloyd Dale again writes: In Rev 9:1 with the presentation of “the key” (authority to make war against the Jews) to the star (messenger) John marks the occasion by switching his terminology from “land” to “abyss” right in this verse:  “And the fifth messenger did sound, and I saw a star out of the heaven having fallen to the earth (land), and there was given to it the key of the pit of the abyss,” but he also adds a new element “the pit of the.” This “star falling from heaven to the land” of Judaea and the presentation of “the key” to this “star” are of very special importance for the people of the land as well as for John’s primary audience of readers in the seven churches of Asia. 

The beast of Rev 11:7 and 17:8 that ascends out of the abyss (Judea, where God’s judgment by Christ was pronounced) are implemented by “an eighth king” of the Roman empire.

Vespasian the Roman general that was dispatched from Rome (“heaven”) by the ruler of Rome, Nero ascended from the Abyss: Rev 17:8 (added emphasis) the beast (Vespasian) that thou sawest was, and is not; and shall ascend out of the Judaean pit, and go unto (the) destruction (of the Harlot, Judaea, Jerusalem, and the temple): and they (the apostate Jews) that   dwell on the earth shall wonder, whose names were not written in the book of life from the foundation (beginning) of the world (Mosaic marriage covenant, Exo 17) when they behold the beast (Vespasian) that was (in Judaea), and is not (in Judaea but in Rome to be made emperor), and yet is (emperor, with his army in Judaea). 

He continues “And they (the “locusts” of verse 3ff) have a commander (king) over them, the messenger of the abyss, whose name is Abaddon (Hebrew) -Apollyon (Greek) – Destroyer (English). In this verse, as in other apocalyptic Scriptures (cf. Joel 2:25 the “locusts” are the soldiers of invading armies and their commander is the messenger of destruction (judgment) to the abyss (land of Judaea, v1). Therefore, John is using “abyss” as a “metaphor for the land of Judaea in chapter 9. John also uses the lexeme “abyss” as a symbol of the land of Judaea here as well.  It is the apocalyptic symbol for the judgment and destruction of Judaea by the armies of the beast and the ten kings (Rev 17:12, 18:24; and 19:15-21). LloydDale.com

Conclusion

God’s judgment pronounced from Christ upon Jerusalem with their removal from the land ca. 70AD, is the Abyss this satan was locked in for a thousand years. Other previous claims by the Jews to the land (after their being ousted ca. 70AD) were not recognized by the nations, thus do not qualify as the release of adversary.

Thus, in order for the release of this Satan after the thousand years the release 1) must be tied to the land with a claim by the Apostate Jews to their ownership to the land, and 2) their claim to the land must be noticed or recognized by the nations, otherwise the nations could not be deceived!

Why the Thousand Years is Longer than a Thousand & How we know When it Ends

We have shown the thousand years is figurative. Since it is being used in a metaphoric manner, it must mean more than a thousand if language is to be honored. Any objections to that, we turn to the identification of this adversary that signifies and specifies the length it is bound. The thousand years denotes an indefinite long period that satan is bound in comparison to the short period satan is loosed. It’s a contrast of “long period vs. short period”. The identification of this Christian adversary tells you exactly when the binding and the release of it occurs!

Strong’s Concordance states chiloi (as opposed to the textus receptus that states xilia). We think Dr. Strongs said the Greek word for thousand is a plural of uncertain affinity because the older manuscripts, like Tischendorf’s 8th edition, uses the plural that in today’s modern Greek means the male gender. If we were to follow Strong’s definition, it could be used metaphorically in the following manner:

In the Greek, according to Tischendorf’s (an older manuscript) the word in Revelation 20 is PLURAL. It is literally “thousands.” Tischendorf said it should be translated “thousands of years.” 

Deu 7:9 LXX, “I show mercy to THOUSANDS of generations”

Exo 20:6 “doing kindness to THOUSANDS, to those loving Me and observing My ordinances.”

“how much money did the bank robber get away with? I don’t know, but it was thousands.”

…. meaning a lot. We still today use the word thousands in the same manner.

Even without Strong’s claim, the text does not state ONE thousand, it just says thousand, and since all of Revelation has figures of speech, metaphors, analogies, there’s a great dragon, a chain, an abyss etc. Nothing is literal in that passage, so thousand(s) years is not literal either.

Revelation 20 is a series of prophetic visions that convey truth through the use of imagery (symbolism). Therefore, to begin this chapter with the interpretation that John is describing a literal thousand (xilia) years does not fit the genre. NO key elements in this passage are literal, thus to try and make the case the thousand years is literal runs counter to the rampant symbolism and makes the rest of the narrative meaningless.

Likewise, the 144,000 Israelites in Rev 7 and 14 are not to be understood as exact numbers for 12,000 in each tribe either, but portray completeness of GREAT NUMBERS in the same fashion just explained.

The Release of Satan, the Christian Adversary, the Accuser

In Rev 20:3 satan (the adversary of Christianity, “the synagogue of satan” Rev 2:9, 3:9) is bound specifically that “he  should deceive the nations no more.”  And then notice in verse 8 he (the Zionist Jew, the great harlot, the deceiver of the nations) is released to “go out and deceive the nations” again!

Since we have shown that “the strong one” of Mat 12:29 cannot be the Christian adversary personified as Satan in the symbolized book of Revelation as Full Preterists posit and since the binding aspect of the above did not take place until 70AD it is totally impossible that the “thousand years” could be referring to the 40 year period which began in c. 30AD and ended in 70AD, as some insist.  

In Romans 16:20, in the KJV, MKJV, YLT, ASV, RV, LITV (cf. Gen 3:15), Paul writes to the Christians at Rome that “Yahweh of peace shall bruise Satan under (their) feet shortly.”  If the correct word is not bruise, why did all these translators use it?

Also, it appears to us, according to audience relevance in this verse either some of those Roman Christians had been drafted into the Roman army or Paul was using the audience relevance (your feet) in a unanimous manner. What other adversary (satan) was “bruised” and “bound” shortly after Paul wrote those words?

DECEPTION TO THE NATIONS DURING THE FULL PRETERIST’S BINDING OF SATAN

Those who adhere to the Full Preterist paradigm have a serious problem they do not know about.

We have a big advantage because we know the identity of the various Satans in scripture, but the fact that we see this entity ACTIVELY DECEIVING DURING THE PERIOD BETWEEN 30-70AD demonstrates it is not the thousand year binding period:

(written ca. 52AD)
Such as in 1Th 2:18 “because we would fain have come unto you, I Paul once and again; and Satan hindered us.”

(written ca. 63-65AD)
and 1Ti 5:15 “for already some are turned aside after Satan.”
People are seed along the path where the word is sown. Yet SATAN COMES AND TAKES AWAY THE WORD THAT WAS SOWN IN THEM. (Mk. 4:15)
Another example of Satan deceiving is:

“[T]HE GOD OF THIS WORLD has BLINDED THE MINDS OF THE UNBELIEVING so that they won’t see the light of the gospel.” (2Co 4:4).
These are just more examples that makes this view untenable and must be rejected.
Proper Preterism knows God’s judgment pronounced from Christ upon Jerusalem is the Abyss (Psa 36:6b Thy judgments are a great deep. [abyss]) where this great adversary was imprisoned ….

“O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, [thou] that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under [her] wings, and ye would not! 38 Behold, your house (of Judah) is left unto you desolate.” (Mat 23:37)

….. and resulted in their eviction from the land ca. 70AD, and Jerusalem is where the Abyss (God’s judgment) took place when this Adversary (satan) was imprisoned for a thousand years.

Lloyd Dale (w/some emphasis) writes:

Ostensibly the “thousand years” ended in 1948 or soon after, when Zionistic Judaism was again established (released) in the land of Judaea.  Current world events certainly confirm that the nations are being deceived by something; as it certainly appears that they are being “gather(ed)…together for battle against Christianity (the beloved city) in general, and the Christian west (the camp of the saints) in particular. It is extremely interesting that the scenario which John describes in Revelation 20:7-9a appears to be taking place in the very “world” in which we are currently living, and Jerusalem, for whatever reason, is right in the middle.  It appears that we may be in for some very “interesting” times as these events continue to play out.  It is certainly true that Zionistic Judaism and Dispensational eschatology have worked “hand in glove” to deceive the nations during the past 100 years with their false claims that are amazingly similar given the ostensible diversity of their origins and identities.

In Revelation 20:8-9, John describes a great Gog and Magog army “as numerous as the sand of the sea” gathered together for war against the “camp of the saints and the beloved city.”  (occurs after this release of adversary that we think we are in and is no insignificant coincident) The “beloved city” is an obvious reference to the “new Jerusalem” of Revelation 3:12 & 21-22:5.  The new Jerusalem is worldwide Christianity.  It is our considered opinion that “the camp of the saints” is the Christian west or the United States of America as between the years of 1620 and 1900 most Christians from the British Isles, Europe, and around the world came to “camp” and establish new homes in American, the “new” land of Christian freedom. From his article The Abyss

The Destruction of the Christian Adversary

The destruction of this adversary that is now released (Rev 20:3 “…after that he must be loosed a little season.”) for a little season, some translations merely state it is a little while. Again, this little while this adversary is loosed is being contrasted to the long period it is bound called the thousand years, so while there is no definite time period stamped on it, we can know the length because of the identity of this Christian adversary we have now identified! It is further verified by the presence of Gog and Magog that is presumably destroyed around the same time the Gog and Magog armies are dealt with by God (Rev 20:9), only one verse earlier.

There is only one place in the Revelation that speaks of this Zionist entity’s destruction. There is no parallel verse to the following verse in Revelation we know of. We have already shown that Rom 16:20 is not a parallel to the following verse in Revelation and that rather Rom 16:20 was a soon anticipation of the “bruising” (cf. Gen 3:15) that coincided with the 70AD binding of satan who had been actively deceiving the nations during the 40 year period leading up to the destruction of Jerusalem, ca. 70AD. The following verse of its destruction, however, is a figurative thousand years after that binding + after the “little season” released we’ve been elaborating on:

Rev 20:10 (w/added emphasis) And the devil (slanderer of Christianity, the present day totally delusional counterfeit Zionist entity masquerading as a Democracy and God’s chosen, causing wars and deceiving millions) that deceived them (the nations) was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone (destroyed), where the beast and the false prophet (were also thrown in a thousand years earlier in ca. 70AD, see Rev 19:20-21), and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.

“and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.”

(hyperbolic language being used as an emotional over statement that means “to the eons of the eons.”)

May the Truth Prevail!

What is Proper Preterism?

Proper Preterism is Biblical Prophecy (by Steven Hawk & Paul Sauls)

  1. Proper Preterism is NOT Partial Preterism that requires some future second coming of Christ and future resurrection of the saints, because we believe the saints have been and still are populating that kingdom since it was taken from Apostate Judah, ca. 70AD (Mat 21:43).
  2. Proper Preterism does NOT violate or distort ANY imminent time statements, but rather, puts them in their proper context. 
    EXAMPLE: Luk 21:22 ….properly, it is ONLY “all things written” pertaining to the “days of vengeance” that is right in the verse! The fulfillment of “all things written” was about the days of vengeance specifically and not all things in general. It does NOT mean that the days of vengeance would fulfill all prophecy. Full Preterists abuse Luke 21:22. 
    Further, the phrase “all things written” does not pertain to ALL of the NT writings that had NOT yet been written and it would be anachronistic to include them in the context of this passage.  

    WHEN Were these “Days of Vengeance” Jesus Was Speaking of?

    We think the “days of vengeance” were LAST DAYS EVENTS that led up to and included the destruction of the Harlot, Jerusalem. Historically, the events prophetically described by Jesus as recorded in Luke 21:8-27 occurred in the years of ca. 36-70 AD. Jesus clearly instructed His listeners that “when you see these things happening, know that the kingdom of God is NEAR!” [Near is not here!]

What is Proper Preterism?

Nature and Time of Parousia (commonly called the second coming):

Christ’s Parousia most definitely occurred and was “visible” in the events of the war of circa AD70 with Christ’s Parousia (ongoing presence after arrival) as his positional authority. Thus, we hold that the Parousia indicates the beginning of the Millennium, the ongoing presence of Christ since accessing his heavenly throne of David, ruling and reigning with the Saints while subduing the nations of mankind from the heavenly realm. We firmly reject any eschatological view which posits the Millennium of Christ as terminating in AD70. Such views overtly violate Christ’s clear statements concerning when He would officially take seat with his Saints on the Throne of His Glory (Throne of David) in Matt 19:28, Matt 25:31, 1Th 4:13-15; Rev 3:21, 5:10 20:4. We hope you have examined the important time statements in those verses!

Nature and Time of Resurrection:

We note that the majority of scripture seems to speak of “resurrection” in terms of a singular event in time coincident with the Parousia. However, we acknowledge that Revelation 20 posits TWO distinct resurrection events separated by the Millennial Reign of Christ with his saints.  In accordance with 1Pe 9 – 12, we feel John’s Revelation is authoritatively clarifying and interpretive of all prior prophecies regarding “THE resurrection.” The dual resurrection is one major area where we differ with Doug Wilkinson and Jerel Kratt who ask us to accept Rev 20:5a as an “illegitimate textual variant.”  We respectfully disagree with them on this point for two reasons.  1) We find the arguments for Rev 20:5a as a textual variant are less than convincing. In fact, we find evidence that the extant manuscripts actually support the inclusion of Rev 20:5a rather than exclusion. 2) Even if one were to eliminate Rev 20:5a from the texts, the very same information is given in Rev 20:6, where protos anastasis most certainly implies a secondary resurrection event. We therefore hold that the First Resurrection pertained to the faithful in Christ, both dead and alive, and took place circa AD70. The First Resurrection began the Millennial Reign of Christ with his Saints. Rev 20:4 proves it occurs AFTER the defeat of the beast power. Thus, we believe the Millennium is ongoing today as Christ continues to subdue the nations with a rod of iron and through his gospel. The second resurrection and judgment of “the rest of the dead”(GWTJ Rev 20:12) will occur at some point yet future to us after Satan is destroyed (Rev 20:10). Satan having currently renewed his deception to the nations during the “little while” as Rev 20:3, 7-8 anticipated. (for more on this see “Unique Characteristics of View” heading below)

While we believe Christ’s kingdom will never end, we do see an end to some Messianic duties once the nations are fully subdued. In our view, this would be the point at which Christ delivers the kingdom to the Father according to 1Co 15:23-28, having accomplished all work the Father gave him in the reconciliation of all things.      

 Nature and Time of the Gathering/Rapture:

We believe that the regathering of the twelve tribes of Israel was accomplished by AD70 and was completed by Paul’s ministry to the Gentiles with the “ethnos” being called to believe Christ’s gospel.  The term “ethnos” (Gentiles) simply means “the nations” which, contextually in the 1stcentury AD, meant anyone from ANY nation. This also included the Israelites (northern tribes) of the Assyrian exile from the 8thcentury bc, referred to as the House of Israel or Ephraim (as opposed to the House of Judah, still in the land in Christ’s day).Since her creation, Israel was always supposed to have been a nation according to FAITH rather than pure blood lines. Paul clarified that beyond any possible misunderstanding in his several epistles. We comprehend that the northern tribes were dispersed completely (Hos 1:9) and were inseparably SEWN AS SEED INTO the Gentile nations (Ezekiel 22:15 LXX “scatter”, Greek diaspiero“to sow seed”, Hos 8:8) by God’s own design (prior to the Babylonian captivity of the southern tribes) through the Assyrian process of relocation, forced intermarriage, and total cultural/religious assimilation into the diverse pagan cultures of the nations which they conquered. After several hundred years they lost all identification with the nation of Israel culturally, covenantally, socially, geographically, religiously, and genetically. Thus, Paul realized that it was only through calling the Gentiles corporately that he would ALSO accomplish the miraculous regathering of the 12 tribes in Christ by FAITH. Unlike the IO proponents, we do not believe Paul was mystically calling ONLY the so-called “lost northern tribes” since God’s reason for the divorce was to bring them back along with the other nations in righteousness through Messiah. In Paul’s day, there remained ONLY GENTILES and JEWS and a true Jew was a Christian (the believing remnant, Rev 2:29).

Rom 11 talks about BOTH HOUSES (people have erroneously made the following in Rom 11 about the Jews):

FIRST BRANCH broken off (divorced) in the 8th century BC, for disobedience (2Ki 17:18; Jer 3:8): Israel, aka gentiles (Rom 11:7a, 11-12, 15,17b, 21, 23, 24a, 30); 

SECOND BRANCH broken off in the 1st century AD for rejecting Christ: Judah aka Jews (Rom 11:28, 31),… 

PLUS a NEW THIRD BRANCHthe true olive tree Jesus Christ, (the new green branch ALL had to be grafted into (Isa 4:211:160:21Jer 23:533:15 et al), and those gathered and grafted into the true Olive Tree, i.e. the believing remnant from both houses , and other believers from the nations who would become “of Israel, . Thus, the first century ecclesia/congregation of believers ( became(not replaced) the Israel of God as a New Creation (Gal 6:15-16).

The continuation of this 3rd Branch is why we read in Luke 21:24 (added emphasis):

“And they (the Jews) shall be falling by the edge of the sword and shall be led into captivity into all nations (70AD and after). And Jerusalem shall be trodden by the nations (still is today), until the eras of the nations may be fulfilled.” (the nations hear the gospel) 

IO Preterists have tried to tell us Luke 21:24 is a parallel to Rom 11:25, but it is NOT, because Rom 11:25 is talking about Ephraim’s descendants or the northern tribes! Ephraim’s descendants were instrumental to possess and inherit the nations (Amos 9:12; Isa 14:2, 54:3) in God’s plan to bring in the nations. Nor is Luk 21:24 a reference to Rev 11:2 that only tells of the FIRST (not the last) of Judah’s dispersions AFTER JESUS SPOKE THOSE WORDS, which was when God used the Roman armies.

Further, Paul was most certainly aware that the nations would also be granted access into the kingdom according to Isaiah 49:5-6. We believe the First Resurrection (Rev 20:4-5; 1Th 4:16) correspondsto the resurrection of the 1stcentury Saints, the Bride of Christ, the 144 thousand “virgins” from the 12 tribes (Rev 7, Rev 14:1-4).These were made up of both Jews and Gentiles (One New Man) reconciled in Christ according to FAITH. The first resurrection was largely an invisible event in heaven (i.e. souls Rev 20:4) tothe world coincident with AD70.

Nature and Time of the Millennium:

According to Christ’s own statements correlated with Revelation 20, the Millennium would begin when Christ would officially be seated “on the throne of His glory.” We are aware that nearly everyone in the Full Preterist camp holds that Christ was seated on the throne of David at his ascension to the Father. However, we believe a closer reading of scripture tells a significantly different story. First, Isaiah 9:7 tells us that Christ’s KINGdom would be ESTABLISHED with JUDGMENT, as did Christ in Mat 21:43, 23:38. That judgment did not come until AD70. Secondly, though Christ was most certainly seated at the right hand (throne) of the Father at his ascension, this was not the same as being seated on “the throne of HIS glory” (the throne of David). Jesus plainly informs his faithful that they would be seated WITH HIM…on HIS throne…at the very time HE is seated at the Parousia. We cite Mat 19:28, 25:31; 2Ti 2:12 and Rev 3:21 in support of our exegesis. 

Furthermore, Christ was told to WAIT UNTIL his enemies were made his footstool (put under his authority).(Psa 110:1) “But this man (Jesus), after he had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down on the right hand of God; and from there He is waiting for His enemies to be made his footstool.” (Heb 10:12-13, emphasis added) As Hebrews was written ca. 64AD, several years after 1Corinthians was written. According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus was still sitting at the right hand of the Father in ca. 64AD, because He was still waiting for His enemies to be made His footstool. This “waiting” signifies that Christ was not yet acting officially in the role of KING, but as the PRINCE IN WAITING (Act 5:31, 3:15 also see Dan 9:25-26; 12:1) until he accessed the throne of David and became King (Rev 11:15) to sit in judgment in AD70. Until that time, his enemies, the rulers of 1st century OC Judah, were still in full authority while the physical Jerusalem temple yet remained standing. He could not be KING until they and the Levitical priesthood were removed (Heb 8:4, 9:8). The entire book of Hebrews (notably Heb 8:1, Heb 10:12-13) thoroughly informs us that Christ’s role was in the heavenlies from the time of his ascension to AD70 to perform high priestly duties, rather than act as King. Kingly duties would come at AD70 when he began judgment that was also from heaven (1Pe 1:4-5; Col 1:5; 2Tim 4:18 et al).

Is Salvation Ongoing Today?

Absolutely without question (Luk 21:24 et al). Salvation is man turning from a life of pursuing carnal minded wickedness to receive God’s provision (the atoning blood of Christ) for his “missing the mark.” It is the NC offer of the blessing of eternal life in the Kingdom / City after this physical life ends while also experiencing the amazing blessing of walking DAILY in (the spirit) fellowship with Christ by faith and having him dwell inside us spiritually in THIS life. This blessed fellowship is experienced both individually in private and corporately as believers gather together to worship our LORD.      

Universalism?

No.  

What Continues Today?

The Kingdom was established in the judgment of Israel in AD70 (Isa 9:7, 29:9; Rev 11:!5 and 20:4) and the destruction of the harlot, apostate Judah. The Kingdom has no end, no matter what events may transpire temporally. The Millennial Reign of Christ with his Saints in the heavenlies continues today until he abolishes all rule and all authority and power and delivers the kingdom to the Father that the Father becomes all in all. We think this is when all finally know the one true God. This process officially began at the overthrow of Jerusalem and the OC (Mat 21:43). The gospel continues to call all men to faith in Christ as he is still bringing the nations into subjection to his authority and rule.  

Unique Characteristics of View

Our exegesis and grammatical studies lead us to conclude that AD70 brought about the coincident “binding” of Satan in the Abyss to prevent FURTHER deceiving of the nations (Rev 20:3) and the judgment of the Harlot because SHE HAD ALREADY BEEN deceiving the nations all throughout the 40-year gospel period (Rev 18:23). Since that is the purpose of the binding, and the nations during the 40-year period between 30-70AD were still being deceived and people were still falling away from the faith as a result of that deception (1Ti 4:1) we must adamantly reject the FPist 40-year binding theory.

We reject the claim of being partial preterists because we consider that the writings of the NT apostles and prophets of Christ fall squarely OUTSIDE the purview of “all things that are written” which was only speaking to last days events (days of vengeance) that ended ca. 70AD. When Christ spoke those words in Luke 21:22, even HIS words had not yet been written, let alone the rest of the books of the NT. We believe that the majority of Revelation points to and enhances what the OT prophets wrote concerning the eschaton. However, we also perceive that Revelation contains NEW information that gives us a glimpse of things that would transpire AFTER the fall of Jerusalem and into the ongoing Millennial Reign of Christ and beyond (Rev 20-22). 

We marvel that everyone is so intent on describing and discussing the END of the OC but seem to give almost no thought to Christ’s glorious Millennial Reign of the NC in which all things are to bemade new! We strive to always be ready and willing to amend our position as new information and exegesis might prove us to be erroneous in some point. Therefore, we are not locked into any rigid 70AD hermeneutic (while still acknowledging its significance as the destruction of Jerusalem) and therefore yield at all times to the scriptures as we continue to learn and grow in the Lord.

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The Jews as God’s Chosen & Special “Second Chance” as a Nation Debunked (an analysis of Romans 11)

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A Sample taken from Book 1 of:

“The Christian MythBuster Series: The Last Days Edition

“and shall dash thee to the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave 

in thee one stone upon another; BECAUSE YOU KNEW NOT the time of thy visitation.”

(Jesus Christ to the Jews that rejected His coming Luk 19:43) 

“and it shall be, every soul that may not hear that 

prophet shall be utterly destroyed out of the people.” (Act 3:23)

He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. (IV gospel 3:18)

Please read this vital information in its ENTIRETY! Contact us for the full version.

Acts 3:23-24 (above quote) does not put a 2,000 year rider on that promise. Next verse (24) even tells when it was for “of these days.” This Zionist deception is so broad it’s hard to put under one subtitle, but we’ve already clarified some misconceptions about “Counterfeit Zion”, “Forever as Temporary Shadows”, etc. and the words translated to imply the end of that world (heaven and earth etc.) or age as the YLT translates—that was “forever” for their world or age, but the promise was to the 12 tribes – the Jews (Judah) were only one tribe – the ten northern tribes were scattered abroad.

We also learned that new covenant Israel was a continuation with those that are in Christ (not a replacement because genetic Israelites were and are included if they are in Christ). Jesus predicted (God pronouncing judgment on Judah in the first century the Abyss [Jerusalem]; see the Abyss) her house would be desolate. In other words, no more House of Judah (Jewish nation) to have special status with Yahweh God (Deut 4:26-32;30:1 The mystery of the gospel was that the physical house would be dissolved and only a spiritual house that would begin with the 1st century remnant that had been left and those hearing the gospel – ergo: Eph 2:20). Jesus did NOT say, if you repent your House may or may not be desolate or someday be restored. God would not remarry a harlot (Jer 3:8  And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.)

You need to notice a few things: God split the tribes (northern Israel and Southern Judah), He divorced Israel, but stayed married to Judah even though we just read she was a harlot too, because Jesus would come through that lineage. 

Also, we are NOT saying “individual Jews” are condemned and cannot repent! Repent as in change their minds about scripture.

But, Christ was and is the last chance who came in the last days of which we are no longer in (Mat 21:37;41; Luke 21:22 with Isaiah 61:1-2; Heb 1:2; 1Peter 4:7 et al). It is important you look up those “last days” scriptures because the church has missed  AND DENIED some crucial FULFILLMENT that is also a huge part of this enigma. The NT is talking about the “LAST DAYS OF THE MOSAIC MARRIAGE COVENANT AGE!” You failed to ask: The Last Days of what? This does not mean everything is fulfilled, but we should not deny what has been and MOST churches are! The rapture of Christ’s Presence in you is what you should want. Christ is Present Here and Now. His sheep hear His voice and follow Him. Those who say He’s coming some day, deny His Presence and call Him a liar.  His second coming he alluded to many times occurred. If you can’t see Him (not visual, but perception),  you are likely not one of His sheep.  “Yet a little while, and the world sees Me no more; but ye see Me: because I live, ye live also. At that day ye know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.” IV gospel 14:19-20 He came, Came & destroyed the Sodom-Babylon of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. as He said He would.

Rev 18:23-24  and the light of a lamp shall shine no more at all in thee (no more in Judah, the old Jerusalem); and the voice of the bridegroom and of the bride shall be heard no more at all in thee: for thy merchants were the princes of the earth; for with thy sorcery were all the nations deceived. And in her was found the blood of prophets and of saints, and of all that have been slain upon the earth. (Jesus said this was the apostate Jews of Jerusalem Mat 23:34,37; Luk 11:49 et al)

Christ’s judgment, IN THE FIRST CENTURY LAST DAYS, was declared upon “the House of Judah (the Jewish kingdom, city and nation)” to be desolate. Please let that sink in, overlooking this is one of the greatest, if not thē greatest deception in Christianity today and a huge part of the deception is Christians mistaking the Jews for Israel, remember we talked about when God made the split and we know why. The next verse of that passage Christians use to say the Jews will accept Him at His second coming (…seeing Him whom they have pierced Rev1:7 cp. Zech 12:2,9-11) but His second coming in judgment was to destroy their House (vindication on the House of Judah) as He just foretold in the prior verse, not to give them a future sign or come for a special trip for them sometime in the future.

The House of Judah (not individuals [though individuals can be of this GROUP] who call themselves Jews that we hope and pray accept Christ as their Savior – as we hope for all other peoples) is the “dry tree” Jesus foretold of. They are the GROUP called Judah today. This is much further elaborated on in Book 2 of the series (available now) entitled “The Master of Deception” (see last page of index of this book – and a picture of the cover – for details on how you can get the book).

WE KNOW GOD SPLIT THE TRIBES. SO HOW IS ROMANS 11 TO BE UNDERSTOOD?

In Romans 11:26 we read about “All Israel being saved.” Many people like to point to this passage and proclaim on behalf of all the Jews in the world today and say; “See, this proves that God will save everyone who is of Jewish descent or nationality”. I have an issue with this because that is not what it says, and I hope you will join me in looking at this critically because other passages and interpretations do not support that idea. What we are saying is that the following passage in Romans has been fulfilled and is not a future prophecy – there was a type and anti-type similarity (among other reasons) of “the Gentiles coming in”: The type was fulfilled, the anti-type of Gentiles still coming into the church is not yet fulfilled. (contact us for more on this)

Once people realize that their reliance on Genesis 12:3 is a flimsy and lazy argument, they usually turn to “God is able to graft them in again” (Rom 11:23), but that is a misunderstanding of the text because they either don’t know or forget the Bible people groups, because Israel was split after Solomon’s death and they mix up Israel (divorced, scattered vagabonds who were NOT in the land) with Judah (the other harlot wife, then still married to YHWH) and the time frame in which this regrafting would occur.

Rom 11:25-28 For I would not, brethren, have you ignorant of this mystery, lest ye be wise in your own conceits, that a hardening in part hath befallen Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in; 26and so all Israel shall be saved: even as it is written, There shall come out of Zion the Deliverer; He shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: 27And this is my covenant unto them, When I shall take away their sins. 28As touching the gospel, they are enemies for your sake: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers’ sake.

In this verse the major difference with other translations is in the very first phrase; “And in this way…” Other translations say “And so all Israel will be saved…”.

The Olive Tree Mystery of Romans 11 Revealed – that you no longer be deceived:

Just as we learned in Part I of the book about the fourth gospel 3:16 – the Greek text is very clear. The word translated “So” [Greek outo] literally means, “In this way” or “In this manner.” So Paul is not using the word “so,” but is elaborating on the manner in which “All” Israel shall be saved. He is not saying that every genetic Israelite will be saved.

The key is in Rom 9:30-31 and Rom 11:26. Paul knows that “the nationals that are following after righteousness” and have attained unto righteousness (v.30) include descendants of Israel, divorced and scattered among the nations from the 8th century BC.  They are the ones that must fulfill the prophecy of the “melo ha goyim” (fulness of nations) of Gen 48:19 and by their salvation “all Israel shall be saved.”  The salvation of “all Israel” is accomplished by the salvation of the fulness of the nations, not by a future awakening of Apostate Judah as a nation because this was a first century event. The nations are still hearing the gospel though as Luk 21:24 states.

The term “Israel” in Rom 9:31 is not a reference to first century Jews, it is rather a reference to the ancient nation of Israel (the northern tribes) before the divorce. The term “Israel” is not applied to Jews “as a people and nation” in the NT (even though they as individuals sometimes are referred to as teachers of Israel). The term “Israel” in 11:26 ultimately is a reference to a resurrected Israel. For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith (Romans 4:13). For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. (Romans 1:16)

Therefore, the Holy Spirit states that all peoples (including individual Jews – Not the Nation of Apostate Judah being converted as a GROUP, as commonly taught), in all times, who possess faith in Jesus Christ for the salvation of their souls constitute the one and ONLY (no separate people groups of God) “Israel of God”:

Gal 6:15-16  For neither is circumcision anything [not necessary], nor uncircumcision, but [all peoples, including individual Jews must become] a new creature [creation]. 16And as many as shall walk by this [NEW COVENANT] rule, peace be upon them, and mercy, and upon the [TRUE AND ONLY] ISRAEL OF GOD. [EMPHASIS ADDED]

Peter elaborates and confirms that salvation is now open to ALL who fear God and is no longer a monopoly reserved (as they taught) to one nation or people. Peter is affirming through the gospel going out to the whole world what was said to Abraham that he would be a blessing to ALL the families of the world (see Gen 17ff). The point is that we were told in Jer 31 in the new covenant God would bless the Houses of Israel and Judah in the manner we are seeing today since the first century; and He did that in a very unique way – by divorcing and scattering Israel into the Gentile nations then calling them back in belief and righteousness. In the scripture you will not find a single verse of scripture that teaches that God had a plan to change this all inclusive plan and revert to an exclusive salvation where only one nation would be eligible. So God is NOT going to again deal with people based on race, ethnicity, nationality, or genealogical descent.

CONCLUSION

Since we have already explained Romans 11:26 “blindness in part has come to Israel…”, by demonstrating the end of the exile through Christ and the restoration of the kingdom (in a heavenly sphere, but also somewhat earthly for us mortals who are in a type of prenatal stage) to the Israel of God (Gal 6:16; Eph 2:12), we do not have to expound on this verse. However, we continue to debunk the idea of dispensationalism, because it is a subtle, ominous sin, working against God.

To be scripturally correct, NC Israel is a spiritual seed/genealogy aka those who “walk after the spirit” of Christ—it is NOT a physical genealogy. This “all Israel will be saved” also applies to those who have been resurrected as well as those who are still alive in the flesh but “walk after the spirit”…. THUS:

Gal 5:16 “in him is no sin” as long as we walk after the spirit not after the flesh…. ergo:

2Pet 3:13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens (where the resurrected saints are now) and a new earth, (people still living, who walk after the spirit of Christ) wherein dwelleth righteousness.

Gal 3:2 This only I desire to learn from you: Did you receive the Spirit by works of Law or by hearing of faith? Gal 3:7 Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham. Gal 3:29 And if ye are Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, heirs according to promise.

The above 3 verses (even v.7 alone) destroy the dispensational understanding of prophecy – that God has two people groups (the Jews and the church) and that the church is some parenthesis afterthought at best. Look at v.7 above, those that are the sons of Abraham’s seed (not plural ‘seeds’ Gal 3:16) are not of a genetic lineage, but are the spiritual descendants that are in Christ PERIOD, to get the promises (v.29).

The Galatians had foisted upon them this Jew-centric deceptive (Gal 3:1f) interpretation. They did not understand the mystery of the gospel, and thought physical Israel (whom they falsely call the Jews) had a permanent place and priority in the plan of God. This same deception, of a counterfeit Zion, is being taught in many of the churches in America and Christianity today. It is sometimes referred to as “dispensationalism (futurism that denies fulfillment)” and is closely linked to Zionistic Judaism. Paul adamantly refutes this in Galatians 1:8f, et al in no uncertain terms as a false gospel.

The things we have learned here does not sound like a simple blindness, or hardening of the Jews as the Zionist falsely attribute that verse that was to the NORTHERN TRIBES. It sounds more like God fed those who were opposing Him strong delusion that they’d believe the lie they wanted to believe, then He destroyed them out of the land, and they became a “dry tree.” Luk 23:31 For if they do these things in the green tree, what shall be done in the dry? This, He spoke of their treatment (ruthlessness) toward Him because of their rebellion toward God. Here, in a sense, He was foretelling the heinous acts they would do as a restored people (nation TODAY) thereafter, because (even though they were a circle of bad guys) they were still a green tree when they possessed the kingdom (Mat 8:12, 21:43). 

So, the next time someone tries to tell you that God is telling us He was using the Jews to save the other nations in these verses:

Rom 11:1a  “I say then, Did God cast off his people? God forbid….” Rom 11:11  I say then, Did they stumble that they might fall? God forbid: but by their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, to provoke them to jealousy. Rom 11:12  Now if their fall is the riches of the world, and their loss the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness? Rom 11:25  For I would not, brethren, have you ignorant of this mystery, lest ye be wise in your own conceits, that a hardening in part hath befallen Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in; Rom 11:26  and so all Israel shall be saved: even as it is written, There shall come out of Zion the Deliverer; He shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:

You now can openly correct them in front of others and say Paul was celebrating God’s method in this following verse by Him divorcing (in the 8th century BC) Israel (the northern tribes, NOT the Jews whom He stayed married to in the first century), but the northern tribes whom He would use to bring in the fulness of the Gentiles (nations)!:

Rom 11:33  O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and the knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past tracing out!

AMAZON: THE LAST DAYS EDITION
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Proper Preterism shows God kept His promises to Israel and helps us understand Scripture

(The Sign of the Second Coming Parousia of Christ)

Note, this was originally a letter to an in-law and due to unfair dialogue, this may appear to be a little hard-ball, using the Titus 1:13 principle “… reprove them sharply, that they may be sound in the faith” in the nicest possible manner. Part 1 of 2 (Part 2 has the rebuttal to this letter) …

I think you’re a smart woman and I appreciate your input, and if I’m wrong I will reconsider my finds. First, I’d like to say I am not asking you to believe me. Be a noble Berean (Acts 17:11) and check the sources below, and if you see this, I will tell you that I was just as surprised (after many years of studying) as you will be.

Now, when you said “you have your truth, and I have mine,” I’m sure you know there is no such thing as “contradictory truth” and God’s word is not opinion – He is not the author of confusion, mankind is. Logically, we can both be wrong, or one of us can be right, but we can’t both be right on the topic discussed at the hotel, which YOU asked about or I would not had brought it up in the first place. I only wanted help with marketing.

Now that this has been brought up, I should defend this position that I think is truth, and that is “Christ’s presence or arrival on His heavenly throne (Greek PAROUSIA [defined later]), not coming as usually translated (He never said He was coming back to reign on planet Earth — that is what the churches teach), but a heavenly reign (1Pe 1:4; Col 1:5; 2Tim 4:18 et al) OCCURRED IN THE FIRST CENTURY, AS HE SAID IT WOULD (Mat 16:28, 24:34 et al) AND WE ARE NOT LIVING IN THE BIBLICAL LAST DAYS” as your Mother insisted.

THE LAST DAYS [of the old Jewish system – that’s what it means] WERE FROM THE BIRTH OF CHRIST (circa 1BC, see Heb 1:2; Acts 2:16, 17) TO THE DESTRUCTION OF JERUSALEM, (ca. 70AD). THE BIBLICAL LAST DAYS ONLY LASTED ABOUT 70 YEARS. After that is when everything BEGAN for Christianity (i.e. Him and His saint’s reign from heaven). There are “plausible” scriptural reasons we live in an evil world until God becomes “all in all” (1Co 15:28).

Allow me to explain….

Most Christians would strongly affirm that the gospel message of Christ is an essential. I ask, how essential to the Gospel is the event commonly referred to as the “second coming,” then? The churches do not always realize the second coming of Christ is an essential and make it a side category (for prophecy)–hopefully you will see how wrong that is.

Heb 9:28  (ASV)  so Christ also, having been once offered to bear the sins of many, shall appear A SECOND TIME, apart from sin, to them that wait for him, UNTO SALVATION

Based on the verse quoted above, there can be NO SALVATION apart from, (i.e. without) the commonly called “second coming!” See the vital importance? When that verse was written, they did not yet have the salvation they were promised, because it was a process. “Second coming” brings with it salvation here too: Joh 14:3; Rev 22:12. Then Paul describes how a believer receives immortality in the PAROUSIA (Greek word for PRESENCE, wrongly translated coming) of Jesus in 1Cor 15:23c and 15:45, 50-54.

NOTE: In Heb 9:28 (we just read) salvation does not occur at His cross and resurrection as most assume, because there is a process to our redemption. HIS RETURN HAS TO BE INCLUDED, as I tried to explain at the hotel (the Levitical [see Lev 16] priestly protocol, where the priest had to re-appear to the people showing God’s approval of the sacrifice – Christ is our high priest).  It’s the process of redemption and that process ended with the destruction of the old system ca. 70AD, then redemption/salvation began. They were sealed with the spirit (30-70AD), which was the EARNEST DOWN PAYMENT Eph 1:13-14; 2Cor 1:22, but did NOT have salvation at the cross and resurrection of Christ, and neither do we if we deny His parousia (usually called return or second coming) occurred.

The following time statements are taken from Book 1“Imminent Time Statements that have been Ignored & Distorted please consider them carefully. They demonstrate how the churches have not considered “audience relevance!

1Jn 2:18 Little children, it IS (not might be!) the last hour: and as ye heard that antichrist cometh, even NOW (at the time this was written!) have there arisen (past tense) MANY antichrists; whereby we KNOW that it IS the last hour. (I could not tell my children those words, and have it mean anything significant, if it were 2,000 years into the future!)

Romans 13:11 And that, knowing the time, that now it is high time to awake out of sleep: for NOW is our salvation NEARER than when we believed. (Carefully consider this verse with Heb 9:28 above to see they did not have it yet, until His return.)

“And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world for a testimony unto all the nations; AND THEN SHALL THE END COME.” (Mat 24:14)

The “world” there is the Greek word oikoumene referring to the known world at that time – the world of the Roman Empire.

Compare in blue:

“if so be that ye continue in the faith, grounded and stedfast, and not moved away from the hope of the gospel which ye heard, WHICH WAS (past tense) PREACHED IN ALL CREATION UNDER HEAVEN; whereof I Paul was made a minister.” (Col 1:23 cf. Romans 1:8)

The “kingdom” that they were to preach was the  “heavenly kingdom” of Jesus Christ (2Tim 4:18) which can only be entered through resurrection – upon physical death “unto an inheritance incorruptible, and undefiled, and that fades not away, RESERVED IN HEAVEN FOR YOU,” (1Pe 1:4; Col 1:5 et al)

2 Pet 3:8 that your Mother brought up “a day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as a day with the Lord” has nothing to do with indicating when Christ would return, but does have relationship to the fact that the Day of the Lord will not last for 24 hours (e.g. my DAY will come – see “Day of the Lord” Book 1). Peter is assuring them God alloted that time for old covenant Israel that was scattered abroad to be reached with the gospel and the House of Judah (Jews) to repent, but was ensuring them that day was not being prolonged despite what the mockers and deniers were saying (2Pe 3:3, 4). Likewise, Peter is discussing how the covenantal heavens and earth have been kept in store for a long period of time, but no big deal to God because time affects Him different than us. That verse does not and CANNOT contradict, negate and nullify ALL time statements God was conveying to His poor, persecuted first century people when He told them to hang in there because the time was short! To say so, is to cling to our false traditions and would be dishonest. Point in tact…..

—————————————————————

  • Dan 8:26 And the vision of the evenings and mornings which hath been told is true: but SHUT YOU UP THE VISION; FOR IT BELONGS TO MANY DAYS TO COME (ABOUT 500 YEARS UNTIL THE 1ST CENTURY LAST DAYS BEGAN WITH THE BIRTH OF CHRIST). Dan 10:14  Now I am come to make thee understand what shall befall thy people in the latter days; for the vision is yet for many days: Dan 12:9  And he said, GO THY WAY, DANIELFOR THE WORDS ARE SHUT UP AND SEALED TILL THE TIME OF THE END.

VERSUS:

  • Rev 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show unto his servants, even the things which must shortly come to pass: and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John; Rev 1:3 Blessed is he that reads, and they that hear the words of the prophecy, and keep the things that are written therein: for the time is at hand. Rev 22:10 And he saith unto me, SEAL NOT UP THE WORDS OF THE PROPHECY OF THIS BOOK; FOR THE TIME IS AT HAND. (SECOND COMING OR GREEK PAROUSIA, CA. 70)

You should see by the vast contrast of the above two passages [with various verses] that God DOES know how to convey time to His people in a manner they would understand.

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How can we say we are “in Christ” if we deny what he plainly taught (these verses are not “last days sidenotes,” but once we are told, say if we deny WHAT HE SAYS, we will be denied John 12:48, 14:23-24; Mat 10:33), because we desire to cling to false traditions of men that make void the word of God (Mat 15:6), and want false teachers that tell us it doesn’t matter anyway? How can we have salvation if we deny what is clearly and plainly stated in the New Testament? It’s apparent to me God is opening the blind eyes and deaf ears of those willing to see and hear. Thus we should no longer be among the blind and non-hearing once we are given this light.

The truth of the matter is, the destruction of Jerusalem was only the visible and dramatic manifestation (“SIGN” Mat 24:2, 3) to them (and to us) that HE DID ascend to the throne of His glory in heaven as King of kings and Lord of lords (second coming) around the time of God’s judgment upon Jerusalem, as he said he would (ca. 70AD see Luk 21:28; Mat 21:43 when the kingdom was taken from the Jews); and since His accession to that throne was not visible to them (Luk 17:20), Christ gave them the sign they asked for before they even asked for it (i.e “not one stone will be left upon another”! Mat 24:2)

“Every Eye Shall See”, and We Shall See Him “AS HE IS”

Luk 17:20 And having been questioned by the Pharisees, when the reign of God doth come, he answered them, and said,
`The reign of God doth not come with observation (CANNOT SEE);

-VS.-
Mat 16:28 Verily I say to you, there are certain of those standing here who shall not taste of death till they may see (THEY CAN SEE) the Son of Man coming in his reign.’

Though it may appear so, there is no contradiction there; it’s only a matter of perspective:

REVELATION 1:7. Behold, HE COMETH WITH CLOUDS; and EVERY EYE SHALL SEE HIM, ….

There is a parallel here with … Exodus 24:10a “And THEY SAW THE GOD OF ISRAEL…”
-VS.-
But Christ said…. Joh 1:18a “NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD AT ANY TIME…”

A person can see with their understanding (perceive) and or see with their eyes. It can be “seen” for certain that everything that Christ described was seen by the folks of that day in His coming judgment on Jerusalem, but do they perceive that was him? The heretics say no that was not Christ’s second coming (2Pe 2:1). So what Christ said is true every eye saw him, but the world does not see him… With the eye, they and others still today can see everything Christ described to have taken place, but some do not “keep” (believe, understand, perceive) his words, as such they do not see him nor shall they ever.

The saints are sitting on that Great White Throne and they will judge these deniers along with the rest of the world. (2Pe 2:1; Luk 12:9; 2Ti 3:5) Mat 24:48  “But if that evil servant shall say in his heart, My lord DELAYS…” The church has developed a delay theory, and needs to come out of it!

“… to all them that love his appearing” (you cannot love what you deny 2Ti 4:8).

The saints are the body of Christ so they will see Christ, at least in that manner of speaking, but they will not see what they are expecting. If someone came and said I am coming to your town to destroy it and every eye will see it, who in their right mind would claim that every person who ever lived or will live, will see it? Even words like “all” and “everyone” have something called context that defines any limitations to scope.

1) While in the flesh they/we could/can only “see” him in the words and understanding of those words that came to pass (i.e. fulfilled prophecy we perceive, this is how He is manifested to us and not the world,) or

2) After the physical death of the body we/they were looking to see him “as he is” because we shall have new spiritual bodies and “be like Him,” (1Jo 3:2) because flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom (reign); and in that day they will see him “face to face.”

3) And every man that hath THIS HOPE in him purified himself, even as he is pure…… Folks who deny the second coming of Christ at the end of the war of AD70 (AS HE SAID: Historically, the events prophetically described by Jesus as recorded in Luke 21:8-27 occurred in the years of ca. 36-70 AD. Jesus clearly instructed His listeners that “when you see these things happening, know that the kingdom of God is NEAR!”) based on a physical bodily resurrection don’t have this hope and as such are not pure. [Titus 1:15-16] They are hoping for a physical bodily resurrection as such deny the faith and hope of true Christians. This is the whole point to Christ’s own statements about his second coming and what folks would see.

You might be thinking that all today do not “serve Him” (Dan 7:14, 27). But, it should be looked at as a long process (since 70AD) of subduing His enemies (1Co 15:25; Psa 110:1). “The police have dominion, but they do not have complete compliance.” Someday, and it may be soon, every knee shall bow and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, then we’ll have more compliance, too.

The ascension or coming of Christ to the Father to receive His Kingdom, was right after the destruction of the Judean (that’s why they would mourn) Kingdom exhibited in this verse:

Mat 24:30 and then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. There were also heavenly signs  (read Josephus, The Wars Of The Jews), Josephus was a first century Jewish historian.

CONCLUSION

With this light now available to us, we can conclude: if that fulfillment and scripturally undeniable sign (i.e. Christ’s prophecy about the destruction of Jerusalem) did not coincide with his 1st century return to get first-fruits of his bride (those waiting in the grave Mat 24:31; 1Th 4:15b then – after that – each Christian alive upon physical death,) that makes him a false prophet.  Christ predicted it in THEIR generation (Mat 24:34), when he would be seated in the throne of His glory in heaven (Mat 19:28).

If you want to know what Christ and His saints do after 70AD (i.e. during the thousands [Greek plural] years reign and beyond) get Book 1 – The Last Days Edition. Everything is progressively and systematically spelled out for you – you’re satisfaction is guaranteed!

So, contrary to the erroneous teachings of the church, there was no delay, especially not “a2,000-year delay.” He did not tarry, but came exactly according to prophecy and fulfilled everything He said He would right on His schedule as given in the New Testament.

For Christ is…entered into…heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us: Noryetthatheshouldofferhimselfoften,asthehighpriestentersintotheholy place every year with blood of others; For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the age He has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for Him, He shall appear the second time without sin unto salvation…For yet a little while, and He that shall come will come, and WILL NOT TARRY. (Hebrews 9:24-28; 10:37)

These verses clearly and unambiguously state that Christ appeared once in the end of the age to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. Then He entered into heaven to appear in the presence of God for those first century Hebrew Christians (and us), and He shall appear the second time without sin unto salvation…FOR YET A LITTLE WHILE, and He that shall come will come, and HE WILL NOT TARRY!

That Scripture clearly states from the time that the above statement was written, it would only be “A LITTLE WHILE” until Jesus Christ would “APPEAR AGAIN A SECOND TIME”, and “HE WILL NOT TARRY!”

It is very inconsistent, if not directly contrary to Scripture, to think that the Lord “tarries” when the Scriptures plainly states that “He will Not tarry!”

The above researched and verified argument – beyond any reasonable doubt – jives with all other scripture and refutes what the churches are teaching, and proves they promote a diluted and distorted (denying He did what He said He’d do), which some might call a false gospel (Gal 1:8-9)! Rest assured there are sufficient, biblical answers to ALL the objections to this; all you need to do is present the objections. Let me know if I can be of any other assistance.  Steve

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Read a response to this letter in Pt. 2 titled ‘Is “Interpretation” Keeping People from Christ?’